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Geography Class 12 Question Paper In English 2024-2025

 

Geography Class 12 Question Paper In English 2024-2025




SECTION-A

Question Nos. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions.


1. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A) All manufacturing industries are associated with raw materials.

Reason (R): Resources are essential for human survival.

Options:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.


2. Which of the following statements are correct related to mining? Choose the correct option:

i. In ancient times minerals were used to make tools and weapons.

ii. All developed countries are extracting more minerals for their development.

iii. The actual development of mining began with the industrial revolution.

iv. There are many stages in the discovery of minerals.

Options:

(A) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.

(B) Only i, ii and iv are correct.

(C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.

(D) Only i, ii and iii are correct.


3. Identify the main characteristics of quaternary activity from the following:

(A) It is associated with extraction of minerals for development.

(B) It is confined to increase the value of raw materials into finished products.

(C) It is concerned with research and development.

(D) It is linked with serving all the people of society.


4. Arrange the following airports of Asia from west to east as per their locations and choose the correct option:

i. Beijing

ii. Tokyo

iii. Aden

iv. Mumbai

Options:

(A) iv, iii, ii and i

(B) iv, iii, i and ii

C) iii, iv, ii and i

(D) iii, iv, i and ii


5. The exported items by a port is first brought from different countries. This port is known as___________.

(A) Comprehensive Port

(B) Outports

(C) Entrepot Ports

(D) Packet Station


6. Arrange the following oil refineries of India from south to north direction as per their locations and choose the correct option: 

i. Mumbai

ii. Kochchi

iii. Kayali

iv. Mangaluru

Options:

(A) ii, iv, iii and i

(B) ii, iv, i and iii

(C) iv, ii, i and iii

(D) iv, ii, iii and i


7. Identify the district of first phase of construction of Rajasthan canal.

(A) Jaisalmer

(B) Barmer

(C) Jodhpur

(D) Ganganagar


8. Identify the main objective of Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) from the following: 

(A) To transport and store natural gas at its depot.

(B) To process and allocate natural gas to different states.

(C) To transport, process and market natural gas.

(D) To sale, stored natural gas for greater profit.


9. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Water transport plays an important role in the international trade of India.

Reason (R): The east coast of India has more ports than its west coast.

Options:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.


10. Read the following facts about 'Swachh Bharat Mission' carefully and choose the correct option: 

i. It is a part of urban renewable mission.

ii. It is launched by Government of India.

iii. It is associated with improving greenery in urban areas.

iv. It is aimed to improve quality of life in urban slums.

Options:

(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.

(B) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.

(C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.

(D) Only i, iii and iv are correct.


11. Identify the unit to measure sound from the following:

(A) Particles per hundred

(B) Decibel

(C) Particles per thousand

(D) Nanometer


12. Choose the correctly matched pair of areas and their characteristics from the following: 

         (Areas)           (Characteristics)

(A) Jhabua District - Bhil Tribe

(B) Daurala Meerut - Gaddi Tribe

(C) Bharmaur Tehsil - Dilapidated Houses

(D) Dharavi Mumbai - Groundwater Pollution


13. "Some wastelands are rendered unfit for agriculture by human activities."

Choose the correct option related to the statement:

i. Shifting cultivation area

ii. Coastal plains

iii. Degraded pastures Options:

iv. Bhabar areas

Options:

(A) Only ii

(B) Both ii and iv

(C) Only iii

(D) Both i and iii


14. Choose the correct option to fill the blank:

By 2050, the world population is estimated to live in urban areas is

(A) One fourth

(C) Two third

(B) Half

(D) Three fourth


Read the following table & passage and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17:


The priority of countries with high level of human development is providing education and healthcare. They are investing more in social sector. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from others.

Countries with medium levels of human development have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.


15. The most important factor applicable with high human development countries is______.

(A) maximum investment in social sector.

(B) maximum investment in service sector.

(C) maximum investment in industrial development.

(D) maximum investment in agricultural development.


16. Greater improvement among the medium level of human development countries is marked by_____.

(A) Development related policies

(B) Environment related policies

(C) Economy oriented policies

(D) Society oriented policies.


17. Which one of the following score of human development index shows the range for Medium category?

(A) 0.049

(B) 0.099

(C) 0.149

(D) 0.199


SECTION-B

Question Nos. 18 and 19 are Source Based Questions.

(2 x 3 = 6)


18. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Case for Free Trade

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalization. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalization allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.

Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.

Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

(18.1) Explain the meaning of 'trade liberalisation'.

(18.2) How have 'globalisation' and 'free trade' affected the economies of developing countries?

(18.3) What should be done by the developing countries to protect from negative impact of 'free trade'? Mention any two steps.


19. Study the map of 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway' and answer the questions that follow:


(19.1) In which part of the continent this railway line is located?

(19.2) Identify the stations of this railway marked as 'A' and 'B'.

(19.3) Write the names of stations located at the easternmost and westernmost end of this railway.


Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 19.

19. Describe any three characteristics of the 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway'.


SECTION-C

Question Nos. 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions.


20. (a) "Nature and human are intricately inter-wined." Analyse the statement. 

OR

(b) "Human beings utilize the opportunities provided by nature." Analyse the statement. 


21. Differentiate between rural and urban marketing centres with examples.


22. Why should non-conventional sources of energy be used in India for sustainable development? Explain with examples. 


23. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:


(23.1) In which census year, the decennial growth of urban population is the highest.

(23.2) Explain the increasing trend of urban population in India.

(23.3) Analyse the continuous increasing trend of number of towns in India.


SECTION-D

Question Nos. 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions.

(5 x 5=25)


24. Define the terms immigration and emigration. Analyse demographic transitions theory in the world.


25. (a) "The cost of transport plays an important role in location of industries." Justify the statement with examples. 

OR

(b) 'Dairy farming is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres. Justify the statement with examples.


26. (a) Explain the meaning of 'target area planning. Analyse the need of 'target area planning for development. 

OR

(b) Explain the meaning of 'regional planning. Assess the outcomes of Integrated Tribal Development Project' in Bharmaur region.


27. (a) "Indian Railways have facilitated the movement of both freight and passengers and contributed to the growth of economy." Support the statement with suitable arguments.

OR

(b) "Indian ports have continuously been growing for successful international trade." Support the statement with suitable arguments. 


28. (a) Evaluate the 'National Youth Policy of India' for overall development of youths and adolescents. 

OR

(b) Suggest the measure for overall development of youths and adolescents in India. 5


SECTION-E

Question Nos. 29 and 30 are Map Based Questions.


29. On the given political outline Map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:

A. A major sea-port

B. A major airport

C. An inland waterway

D. A major area of nomadic herding

E. A major area of commercial livestock rearing

F. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming

G. A major area of mixed farming


Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 29. Answer any five.

29.1 Name the major seaport of South Africa.

29.2 Name the major airport of Australia.

29.3 Name the inland waterway that connects Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean.

29.4 Name the Asian peninsula where nomadic herding is practiced.

29.5 Name the major area of commercial livestock rearing of South America.

29.6 Name the area of extensive commercial grain farming of Australia.

29.7 Name an area of mixed farming of Africa.


30. On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols: 

30.1 The state with the lowest population density (2011).

30.2 The state leading in the production of sugarcane.

30.3 A major sea port in Gujarat.

30.4 A copper mining centre in Jharkhand.

30.5 A manganese mining centre in Madhya Pradesh.

30.6 An Iron-ore mining centre in Maharashtra.

30.7 An international airport in Karnataka.


Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 30. Answer any five.

30.1 Name the state with the lowest population density (2011).

30.2 Name the leading state of sugarcane production.

30.3 Name the place where major sea port is located in Gujarat.

30.4 Name the copper mining centre located in Jharkhand.

30.5 Name the manganese mining centre located in Madhya Pradesh.

30.6 Name the Iron-ore mining centre located in Maharashtra.

30.7 Name the place where international airport is located in Karnataka.










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